Answer :

To solve [tex]\( 48 \div 1 \frac{1}{5} \)[/tex], follow these steps:

1. Convert the Mixed Number to an Improper Fraction:
- Start with the mixed number [tex]\(1 \frac{1}{5}\)[/tex].
- Convert this to an improper fraction. The mixed number [tex]\(1 \frac{1}{5}\)[/tex] can be expressed as [tex]\(1 + \frac{1}{5}\)[/tex].
- Convert [tex]\(1\)[/tex] to a fraction with the same denominator as [tex]\(\frac{1}{5}\)[/tex]:
[tex]\[ 1 = \frac{5}{5} \][/tex]
- Now add the two fractions:
[tex]\[ 1 \frac{1}{5} = \frac{5}{5} + \frac{1}{5} = \frac{6}{5} \][/tex]

2. Perform the Division:
- Now we need to divide 48 by [tex]\(\frac{6}{5}\)[/tex].
- Dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal. The reciprocal of [tex]\(\frac{6}{5}\)[/tex] is [tex]\(\frac{5}{6}\)[/tex].

3. Multiply by the Reciprocal:
- Multiply 48 by [tex]\(\frac{5}{6}\)[/tex]:
[tex]\[ 48 \div \frac{6}{5} = 48 \times \frac{5}{6} \][/tex]
- Simplify the multiplication:
[tex]\[ 48 \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{48 \times 5}{6} = \frac{240}{6} = 40 \][/tex]

So, the result of [tex]\(48 \div 1 \frac{1}{5}\)[/tex] is [tex]\(40\)[/tex].

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

turn the fraction 1 1/5 into improper fraction 6/5

48 ;6/5

48*5/6 ( change the division into multiplication and flip the fraction (reciprocal)

the answer is 40

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